Ask the Doctor - Vol. 2: Thoughtful Answers to Bible Questions: Comments on Selected Bible Passages

As we read the prophecies of the Old Testament that the New Testament writers apply to Jesus, a simple but important problem surfaces-inconsistency of meaning. In their original context, these Old Testament prophecies have a meaning quite different from that which the Gospel writers present. Consequently, we wonder if the New Testament writers misinterpreted these Old Testament prophecies.

For instance, near the very beginning of the New Testament we read: "Look, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel" (Matt. 1:23). Here Matthew quoted Isaiah 7:14, but when we turn to Isaiah chapter 7, we find a prophecy regarding the nation of Assyria (7:15-25; 8:1-8), which no longer existed in New Testament times. As a result, it's most natural and honest to assume that this prophecy about someone called Immanuel would have met fulfillment during the time of kings Ahaz and Hezekiah. That being the case, then we cannot but ask: Was Matthew's interpretation wrong?